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there is a 90% chance that a person eats dinner, a 60% chance a person eats dessert, and 50% chance the person will eat dinner and dessert. which of the following is true

Help asap pls there is a 90% chance that a person eats dinner, a 60% chance a person-example-1
User Fgoudra
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1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

Eating dinner and eating dessert are dependent events because

P(dinner) . P(dessert) = 0.9 × 0.6 = 0.54 which is not equal to

P(dinner and desert) = 0.5 ⇒ answer A

Explanation:

* Lets study the meaning independent and dependent probability

- Two events are independent if the result of the second event is not

affected by the result of the first event

- If A and B are independent events, the probability of both events

is the product of the probabilities of the both events

- P (A and B) = P(A) · P(B)

* Lets solve the question

∵ There is a 90% chance that a person eats dinner

∴ P(eating dinner) = 90/100 = 0.9

∵ There is a 60% chance a person eats dessert

∴ P(eating dessert) = 60/100 = 0.6

- If eating dinner and dating dessert are independent events, then

probability of both events is the product of the probabilities of the

both events

∵ P(eating dinner and dessert) = P(eating dinner) . P(eating dessert)

∴ P(eating dinner and dessert) = 0.9 × 0.6 = 0.54

∵ There is a 50% chance the person will eat dinner and dessert

∴ P(eating dinner and dessert) = 50/100 = 0.5

∵ P(eating dinner and dessert) ≠ P(eating dinner) . P(eating dessert)

∴ Eating dinner and eating dessert are dependent events because

P(dinner) . P(dessert) = 0.9 × 0.6 = 0.54 which is not equal to

P(dinner and desert) = 0.5

User Bryce S
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