Answer:
- The given statement is false.
- The statement is necessarily true when two matrix A and B commute.
Explanation:
This statement is false.
Since, for two matrices A and B , the expansion of the term:
is given by:
![(A+B)^2=(A+B)(A+B)\\\\i.e.\\\\(A+B)^2=A^2+B\cdot A+A\cdot B+B^2](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/oyla5ps34zf98qp0tnr70dj2pq4wvxvaxd.png)
Also, we know that when two matrix A and B commute then we have:
![A\cdot B=B\cdot A](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/7yjmysxnxf44knzf70ticyafmqzqujiosa.png)
Hence, we get the expression as:
![(A+B)^2=A^2+2A\cdot B+B^2](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/12ud4c3obvm4xoqhfcbqsk8s2eh54y0b9z.png)
But when two matrix A and B do not commute then we need not have:
![(A+B)^2=A^2+2A\cdot B+B^2](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/12ud4c3obvm4xoqhfcbqsk8s2eh54y0b9z.png)