If
is a homomorphism, then we have, for every
![g,h \in G](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/wyi69qjpr4w0qproq244w01n99mo4yn742.png)
![\phi(gh) = \phi(g)\phi(h)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/i8085twyxjsk1bt82oeckl3qsv2czo1d4r.png)
Since G is abelian, we have
, and thus
![\phi(gh)=\phi(hg)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/wxcce0p8f00p7vu2ul4ydt3a8mzi9stj9a.png)
But we also have
![\phi(gh)=\phi(g)\phi(h)=\phi(h)\phi(g)=\phi(hg)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/by2fwdbuje1f0pmj84mfgc60rikvqw02un.png)
which proves that G' is abelian.
In other words, for every
, you have
, because there exist
such that
, and you can think of
as
, and of
and
![\phi(h)\phi(g)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/4j8t3gylotth0p3rsztmqj0wy87z7ba0ve.png)
Then, you observe that
because they mean
, and
by hypothesis, because G is abelian.