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Help meeeeeeeeeeeeee

Help meeeeeeeeeeeeee-example-1
User Madness
by
6.7k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer: Second Option


f (x)=(2)/(x) and
g(x)=(2)/(x)

Explanation:

If we have a function f(x) and its inverse function
f ^ {- 1} (x) = g (x)

Then by definition:


(fog) (x) = (gof) (x) = x

Notice that the inverse of the function
f (x)=(2)/(x) is
f ^ {- 1}(x)=(2)/(x)

then:

If
f (x)=(2)/(x) and
g(x)=(2)/(x)

Then:


(fog) (x) =(2)/((2)/(x))


(fog) (x) =(2x)/(2)


(fog) (x) =x

The answer is the second option

User Robert McKee
by
7.2k points
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