F(x) = 1/x g(x)=x-4 can you evaluate (g*f)(0) ? Why or why not?

asked Apr 4, 2020 55.0k views

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$(g\cdot f)(x)=(1)/(x)-4$

$D_(g(f(x))):x\\ot =0$

No, since 0 doesn't belong to the domain.

JonMinton answered Apr 11, 2020

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