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18 votes
18 votes
Is (n x (n +1)) / 2 the same as (n/2)(n+1)

User JKLIR
by
3.3k points

2 Answers

9 votes
9 votes

Answer:

nope

Explanation:

simplify the first equation

User Rdmpage
by
2.8k points
21 votes
21 votes

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

The associative and commutative properties of multiplication allow you to rearrange the product to the form shown in the question.

Division by 2 is effectively multiplication by 1/2.


(n*(n+1))/2\qquad\text{given}\\\\=(n(n+1))/(2)=(n)/(2)(n+1)\\\\=\boxed{(n/2)(n+1)}

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Additional comment

Evaluation of the expressions according to the order of operations will proceed differently for the two expressions.

For the first expression, evaluation steps are ...

  • add 1 to n
  • multiply the sum by n
  • divide the product by 2

For the second expression, evaluation steps are ...

  • divide n by 2
  • add 1 to n
  • multiply the results of these two operations

As we said above, the properties of multiplication ensure the results are the same either way.

As a practical matter, for integer values of n, one of n and (n+1) will be even. It is usually convenient to divide the even number by 2. This means the evaluation might be ...

  • ((n+1)/2)n . . . . for odd n
  • (n+1)(n/2) . . . . for even n

For certain computer representations of the numbers, results may differ depending on the specific numbers and the order of evaluation.

User Berkin
by
2.6k points