72.2k views
3 votes
Is the rule ax+by=d the same as y=mx+b?

User Ggll
by
7.9k points

1 Answer

1 vote

No, they are not the same.

If you made y the subject for each of them:

ax + by = d

by = -ax + d

y = -(a/b)x + (d/b)

which may not be the same as

y = mx + b

since b is already a fixed variable.

But I'm not sure if your question is just asking about whether ax + by = d can be expressed as linear form. If it was asking that, then the working above shows that it can be expressed in linear form (y = mx + b)

User Lucasweb
by
8.2k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories