Answer:
No, this is a wrong statement.
Explanation:
In the context, it is given that John states that the product of two the real numbers provides a number that is real. This is always true, the product is always a real number of two real number.
But the product of any two imaginary numbers is not a imaginary number, the product is always a real number.
So John provides a wrong statement in case of product of any two imaginary numbers.