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Simplify expression cos^2(pi/2-x) / √1-sin^2(x) =

User MarkWanka
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1 Answer

7 votes

Answer:


(cos^2((\pi)/(2)-x))/(√(1-sin^2(x)))=(sin^2(x))/(|cos(x)|)

Explanation:

To simplify this expression you must use the following trigonometric identities


cos((\pi)/(2)-x) = sinx I


1-sin (x) ^ 2 = cos ^ 2(x) II

Remember that


√(f(x)^2) =f(x)

Only if
f(x)> 0 for all x

If f(x) is not greater than 0 for all x then


√(f(x)^2) =|f(x)|

Now we have the expression:


(cos^2((\pi)/(2)-x))/(√(1-sin^2(x)))

then using the trigonometric identities I and II we have to:


(cos^2((\pi)/(2)-x))/(√(1-sin^2(x)))=(sin^2(x))/(√(1-sin^2(x)))\\\\\\(sin^2(x))/(√(1-sin^2(x)))= (sin^2(x))/(√(cos^2(x)))


cos(x) is not greater or equal than 0 for all x. So.


(sin^2(x))/(√(cos^2(x)))=(sin^2(x))/(|cos(x)|)

Finally


(cos^2((\pi)/(2)-x))/(√(1-sin^2(x)))=(sin^2(x))/(|cos(x)|)

User Bakhshi
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6.8k points