92.0k views
3 votes
What would you assume at the beginning of an indirect proof for the following?

A number that is divisible only by itself and 1 is a prime number. 51 is not a prime number.

A. 51 is a prime number.
B. 51 is not a prime number.
C. Prime numbers are not divisible by themselves and 1.
D. 51 is not divisible by itself and 1.

1 Answer

3 votes

I would assume that it is not a prime number as it seems to be divisible by 3.

User Cesar Hermosillo
by
5.1k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.