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2 votes
42 is what % of 40.
40 being the 100%

User Gotofritz
by
6.8k points

1 Answer

3 votes

The question is kinda worded oddly, yet I believe the answer is 105%

This is because the value of just 2 within 40 is 5 percent. (I got this by dividing 40 by 100 and then simply multiping it with 5 to recieve the amount of 2).

With this information you would have to add the five percent to the 100 percent (which means the value would be 42).

Please do correct me if I am wrong^^

User Paulo Avelar
by
6.4k points
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