Answer:
![4.73\cdot 10^(-6) kg m/s^2](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/high-school/b8uuanre7u12hsh30ybpv80lwd6frov1ub.png)
Step-by-step explanation:
First of all, let's calculate the moment of inertia of the second hand. The moment of inertia of a slender rod rotating about one end is given by
![I=(1)/(3)mL^2](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/high-school/nw157zf6vzap4lyo1euc7d6iygi2lsephz.png)
where m is the mass of the rod and L is its length. For the second hand, we have
m = 6.00 g = 0.006 kg
L = 15.0 cm = 0.15 m
So, the moment of inertia is
![L=(1)/(3)(0.006 kg)(0.15 m)^2=4.5\cdot 10^(-5) kg m^2](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/high-school/r9o1o8vhnpqbnp8wnpcld5jfmz08y219e9.png)
Then, we have to calculate the angular speed of the second hand, which is given by:
![\omega = (2 \pi)/(T)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/high-school/v6y807cntsd7f7l8jc5dut03pttxfr42bq.png)
where T is the period of the second hand, which is T=60 s. Substituting,
![\omega = (2 \pi)/(60 s)=0.105 rad/s](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/high-school/qq6df9o2bi2fih9zn17p2a36m3jw48gl91.png)
Now we can finally calculate the angular momentum of the second hand, which is equal to the product of the moment of inertia I and the angular speed
:
![L=I\omega =(4.5\cdot 10^(-5) kg m^2)(0.105 rad/s)=4.73\cdot 10^(-6) kg m/s^2](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/high-school/zav2e4700qvm2jdqh4nsblzndopez6bu4l.png)