The range of a function is the domain of its inverse Answer: true

asked Feb 10, 2020 52.5k views

2 votes

The range of a function is the domain of its inverse

Answer: true

4.5k points

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4 votes

Answer: true

Step-by-step explanation: apex

Real World answered Feb 11, 2020

4.6k points

1 vote

Answer:

you are correct

Explanation:

Zorlak answered Feb 14, 2020

4.1k points

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