Question

Need noooow!

Darren and quincy wanted to justify that the expression 1/6 (6x+12) - 1/2 (4x + 2) is equivalent to -x+1. their justifications are shown below.


Which explains who is correct?


A. Only Darren is correct because he substituted x = 2 into the expressions.

B. Only Quincy is correct because he substituted a number that is the same as the denominator of one of the fractions.

C. Both are correct because after substituting the same value into both expressions, the result is the same.

D. Both are correct because they substituted different values into each expression

Answer 1

C is correct... Just took the test

Explanation:

Answer 2

Answer: Option 'C' is correct.

Explanation:

Since we have given that

`(1)/(6)(6x+12)-(1)/(2)(4x+2)=-x+1`

If we substitute x= 2 into the expression:

`(1)/(6)(6* 2+12)-(1)/(2)(4* 2+2)=-2+1=-1\\\\(1)/(6)(24)-(1)/(2)(10)=-1\\\\4-5=-1\\\\-1=-1`

If we put x = 6 into the expression:

`(1)/(6)(6* 6+12)-(1)/(2)(4* 6+2)=-6+1=-5\\\\(1)/(6)(48)-(1)/(2)(26)=-5\\\\8-13=-5\\\\=-5=-5`

Hence, Both are correct because after the substituting the same value into both expression, the result is same.

Hence, Option 'C' is correct.