89.0k views
11 votes
Umm..HELP me i don't get it!!!!!

Umm..HELP me i don't get it!!!!!-example-1
User TommySM
by
8.7k points

2 Answers

4 votes

Answer:

I think its C

Explanation:

Because if you add the bottom together you get
(1)/((1)/(2x+5) ). When you divide the bottom part flips so it would be
1*2x+5 which ends up being C

I think this is right but I may be wrong

User Intelekshual
by
8.3k points
11 votes

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Simplify the sum on the denominator, that is


(1)/(x+2) +
(1)/(x+3)

multiply numerator/ denominator of first fraction by x + 3

Multiply numerator/ denominator of second fraction by x+ 2

=
(x+3)/((x+2)(x+3)) +
(x+2)/((x+2)(x+3))

=
(2x+5)/(x^2+5x+6)

The original fraction is now


(1)/((2x+5)/(x^2+5x+6) )

= 1 ×
(x^2+5x+6)/(2x+5)

=
(x^2+5x+6)/(2x+5) → B

User Khazratbek
by
8.1k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories