Question

Which is the equivilent to sin-1(cos(pi/2))

Answer 1

0 is the answer.

Explanation:

Given expression is :

sin⁻¹(cos(π/2))

We have to find the value of above function.

Firstly we find cos(π/2).

Since, we know that π/2 = 90°.

Hence, cos(90°) = 0

Putting the value of cos(90°) in given expression, we get

sin⁻¹(cos(π/2)) = sin⁻¹(0) = 0

Hence, sin⁻¹(cos(π/2)) = 0

Answer 2

Expression sin-1(cos(pi/2)) is equivalent to 0.

Explanation:

If we write a term in the the form of y = cos(π/2)

Then the value of y will be = cos (180/2) = cos(90) = 0

Now we know the value of y is = 0

And if we will find the sin value of y then

sin y = sin (0) = 0

⇒ Then
`y = sin^(-1)(0) = 0`

Therefore we can say that the expression sin-1(cos(pi/2)) is equivalent to 0.