Answer:
(a) 50:
3 53 103
(b) 60:
7 67 127
11 71 131
Explanation:
OK, I think you can prove this with the theorem that any prime greater than 3 is 6n-1 or 6n+1, for integer n. In other words, any prime is near a multiple of 6; it is either one less or one more. The proof for this is very easy, look it up.
Given this fact, if two primes (p,q) are 70 a part, this means the first one has to be a case of 6n+1 and the second one has to be a case of 6n-1. Why? Because the nearest multiple of 6 is 72 and with +1 on one end and -1 on the other end, you can reach a "gap" of 70.
Now for the next two primes (q,r) the same must hold. Only, it can't because this requires q to be both 6n-1 and 6n+1.