Register
Explain why 1/2 and 3/6 are equivalent fractions
105k views
1 vote
Explain why 1/2 and 3/6 are equivalent fractions

User OfLettersAndNumbers
by
7.2k points

2 Answers

3 votes

Answer: because if you were to multiply 1/2 by 3 it would equal to 3/6


Explanation:


User RayofHope
by
7.4k points
0 votes

Because they both have the same value.

If you convert them to decimals, they both equal 0.5


User Leo Nix
by
7.5k points
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

7.7m questions

10.4m answers

Other Questions

How do you can you solve this problem 37 + y = 87; y =
What is .725 as a fraction
How do you estimate of 4 5/8 X 1/3
A bathtub is being filled with water. After 3 minutes 4/5 of the tub is full. Assuming the rate is constant, how much longer will it take to fill the tub?
i have a field 60m long and 110 wide going to be paved i ordered 660000000cm cubed of cement  how thick must the cement be to cover field
Link Copied!