148k views
3 votes
Which is equivalent sin^-1 (cos(pi/2))?Give your answer in radians

1 Answer

6 votes

Answer:

[A] 0

Explanation:

Use the following identity: cos(x) = sin(
(\pi )/(2) - x)

arcsin(cos(
(\pi )/(2))) = arcsin(sin(
(\pi )/(2) -
(\pi )/(2)))

= arcsin(sin(
(\pi )/(2) - (\pi )/(2)))

Simplify:

arcsin(sin(0)) = 0

Hope this helps!

User Savan Padaliya
by
8.2k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories