Answer:
C. 5 goes into 100 twenty times, and 1 times 20 is 20
Explanation:
Since, we know that when we multiply both numerator and denominator of a fraction by a same number then we obtain an equivalent fraction,
Here, the given fraction,
![(1)/(5)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/high-school/cc6oz4h7bewzf3fxxxo1s8n7vxixn6llg0.png)
By the above statement,
![(1)/(5)=(1* 20)/(5* 20)=(20)/(100)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/middle-school/4q90fol2kl5x2d7jy5sfi9siil8h1z8bon.png)
Now,
![a\%=(a)/(100)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/middle-school/t3r728g7o1emg96nfoj0uea4yvlk8hyk4j.png)
![\implies (20)/(100)=20\%](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/middle-school/3rfcebwq7a72ybvlc2z4al1dp3mqytiifu.png)
Hence,
![(1)/(5)=20\%](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/middle-school/ugbslrf9j7jaqhissybf2vssviiubbdsys.png)
Option C is correct.