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If f(x) = 2x and g(x)=1/x, what is the domain of (fog)(x)

x>_0

All real numbers except x=0

x<_0

all real numbers

User Volund
by
6.4k points

2 Answers

4 votes

Answer:

B. all real numbers except x = 0

Explanation:

User ERT
by
7.9k points
5 votes

Answer:

Domain is

All real number except at x=0

Explanation:

We are given


f(x)=2x


g(x)=(1)/(x)

Firstly, we will find (fog)(x)


(fog)(x)=f(g(x))


(fog)(x)=2g(x)

now, we can plug back g(x)


(fog)(x)=2*(1)/(x)


(fog)(x)=(2)/(x)

Domain:

we know that domain is all possible values of x for which any function is defined

and we know that denominator of any function can not be zero

so, we set denominator =0


x=0

so, function will be defined for all values of x except at x=0

So, domain will be

All real number except at x=0

User Dmitrii Zyrianov
by
6.1k points
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