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Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

The graph of f(x) passes the vertical line test.
f(x) is a one-to-one function.
The graph of the inverse of f(x) passes the horizontal line test.
f(x) is not a function.


If g(x) is the inverse of f(x), what is the value of f(g(2))?
–6
–3
2
5

2 Answers

9 votes

Answer:

1) f(x) is one - to - one function

2) 2

Explanation:

inverse of f(x)

Let f(x) = y

y = 2x - 3

x = y + 3 / 2

inverse of f(x) = x + 3 / 2

g(x) = inverse of f(x)

f [g(2)]

f [2+3/2]

f [5/2]

(2×5/2)-3

5-3

= 2

Therefore f [g(2)] = 2

User Dzhu
by
8.1k points
4 votes

Answer:

1st q answer is f(x) is one- to -one function and 2nd q answer is 2

User Jenyffer
by
8.0k points

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