menu
QAmmunity.org
Login
Register
My account
Edit my Profile
Private messages
My favorites
Register
Ask a Question
Questions
Unanswered
Tags
Categories
Ask a Question
Why were Europeans able to take over the Americas in the 15th,16th, and 17th centuries?
asked
Feb 8, 2021
176k
views
5
votes
Why were Europeans able to take over the Americas in the 15th,16th, and 17th centuries?
History
high-school
Marco Piccolino
asked
by
Marco Piccolino
5.1k
points
answer
comment
share this
share
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
Please
log in
or
register
to answer this question.
1
Answer
3
votes
Answer:
because Americans don't have full power then
Imkrisna
answered
Feb 12, 2021
by
Imkrisna
5.2k
points
ask related question
comment
share this
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.
5.3m
questions
6.9m
answers
Other Questions
Which was a major source of fricton between native americans and the english colonists?
At approximately what latitude and longitude is st. louis​
Great Britain is an example of a: O A. Dictatorship O B. Republic with unitary system O C. Constitution monarchy with parliamentary system D. Oligarchy with federalist system​
Is there a correlation between the size of an empire and the amount of power it holds in the world?
What was the effect of the rise of the mass media during the 1920s? A) It led to increased membership in labor unions. B) It contributed to the development of a national culture. C) It caused mass migration
Twitter
WhatsApp
Facebook
Reddit
LinkedIn
Email
Link Copied!
Copy
Search QAmmunity.org