216k views
0 votes
Is ∆LMP≅∆NMP by HL? If so, which legs allow the use of HL?

Is ∆LMP≅∆NMP by HL? If so, which legs allow the use of HL?-example-1
User Munificent
by
7.8k points

1 Answer

5 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

For the 2 triangles to be ≅by HL we need the hypothenuse and pair of legs to be congruent.

We know for sure that we have a pair of legs ≅

the legs MP≅MP by reflexive propriety ( is congruent with itself)

But we do not know from the picture that the hypothenuses are ≅

in ΔLMP the hypothenuse is LM

inΔNMP the hypothenuse is NM

So unless is given that LM si congruent to MN the Δs are not ≅ by HL theorem

User Youans
by
8.0k points