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Ross said that if (x² + a)(x2 + b) = O means that (x2 + a) = 0 or (x2 + b) = 0, then(x+

a)(x2 + b) = 2 means that (x2 + a) = 2 or (x? b) = 2. Do you agree with Ross? Explain
why or why not.

User PSyToR
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1 Answer

4 votes

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Answer:

no; 2 has many factors besides 2

Explanation:

The zero product rule says the only way a product may have a value of zero is if one or more factors is zero. That is why one of the factors of ...

(x^2 +a)(x^2 +b) = 0

must have a value of 0.

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The same cannot be said of 2. We might have (1/2)(4) = 2, for instance, in which neither factor is 2. That a product is 2 is not a requirement that one of the factors be 2.

User Yibin Lin
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6.6k points