Question

I need Help on 8 or both (if possible)

Answer 1

I only see one question here...

If
`y=f(x)` is a one-to-one function, then it has an inverse such that
`f^(-1)(y)=x`. This means that
`f^(-1)(f(x))=x`.

According to the table,
`f(1)=-2`. So by definition of the inverse, we have

`f(1)=-2\implies f^(-1)(f(1))=f^(-1)(-2)\implies\boxed{1=f^(-1)(-2)}`

so the answer is either B or D (they're both the same...)