Why is dividing a fraction by 3 and then multiplying by 2 the same as multiplying by 2/3? please i need it now

John Difool asked Jun 2, 2023

235,727 views

12 votes

Why is dividing a fraction by 3 and then multiplying by 2 the same as multiplying by 2/3?

please i need it now

John Difool asked Jun 2, 2023

2.8k points

Your comment on this question:

Email me at this address if a comment is added after mine:Email me if a comment is added after mine

Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.

Email me at this address if my answer is selected or commented on:Email me if my answer is selected or commented on

Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.

21 votes

it would be the same you would already be dividing by 3 because it’s the denominator and the numerator is 2

Arpit Dongre answered Jun 7, 2023

2.6k points

Email me at this address if a comment is added after mine:Email me if a comment is added after mine

Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

1.6m questions

2.0m answers