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asked Apr 11, 2021 49.6k views

2 votes

[The question is in the photo]

Mathematics
college

Spinlock asked

by Spinlock

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2 Answers

3 votes

Answer:

iii

Explanation:

it's because two sides of the triangles are equal and the included angle

SaurabhLP answered Apr 13, 2021

by SaurabhLP

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4 votes

Answer:

i) it is congruent by AsA axiom.

ii) it is congruent by ASA axiom.

iii) it is congruent bySAS axiom.

iv) it is congruent by ASA axiom.

hope its helpful.

Rinor answered Apr 17, 2021

by Rinor

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