Is the measure of Z1 equal to the measure of Z2? Why?

asked Feb 8, 2021 39.4k views

2 votes

Is the measure of Z1 equal to the measure of Z2?
Why?

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1 vote

Answer:

Angles with the same measure are congruent, so Z1 = Z2.

Explanation:

AmitW answered Feb 14, 2021

by AmitW

8.3k points