Are the functions f(x) and g(x) inverse of one another?

asked Mar 17, 2021 114k views

3 votes

8.9k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

7 votes

Answer: No

Step-by-step explanation:

Because they don’t cross from each other

Stephen Ross answered Mar 23, 2021

9.1k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers