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How is domain of the function f(x)=cos x restricted so that its inverse function exists? Drag a value or interval into each box to correctly complete the statements.
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How is domain of the function f(x)=cos x restricted so that its inverse function exists?

Drag a value or interval into each box to correctly complete the statements.

How is domain of the function f(x)=cos x restricted so that its inverse function exists-example-1
User Mateusz Kornecki
by
8.3k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer:

[0,pi]

Explanation:

Because cos is one-one in 0 to pi, inclusive

User Schroedinger
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7.4k points
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