Answer:
Converges to 0
Explanation:
Given is an improper integral where a= -infinity, b = infinity and
f
![f(x) = (x)/(x^2+1)](https://img.qammunity.org/2021/formulas/mathematics/college/u3et2uzgiqvsjsyfruu5ta34o7fcwn1jv0.png)
![\int\limits^a_b {f(x)} \, dx](https://img.qammunity.org/2021/formulas/mathematics/college/sn77fz7t0pvbk1eg12lhft3qefwxm8glpz.png)
This resembles the above integral where a = -b
f(x) let us check whether odd or even or neither
=-f(x)
Since f(x) is odd function and integral is of the form -a to a by properties of integrals, this value is 0
Hence answer is 0