Someone please help me with this question

asked Feb 8, 2022 193k views

5 votes

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6 votes

Answer:

10x

Explanation:

By definition

$(f\codt g)(x)=f(x)\cdot g(x)$

So we just need to multiply the two functions

$(f\cdot g)(x)= f(x)\cdot g(x)\\=√(2x)\cdot √(50x)\\=√((2x)\cdot (50x))=√(100x^2)\\=10√(x^2)\\=10x \text{ since x is non negative}$

Eddiewould answered Feb 14, 2022

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