171k views
0 votes
Integrate by the first method or state why it does not apply and use the second method. Show the details.

â«sec²z dz, any path from Ï/4 to Ïi/4

User Bell
by
5.5k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:


\int\limits_c \sec^2 z dz = i\tanh((\pi)/(4)) -1

Explanation:

Given


\int\limits_c \sec^2 z dz

From:


(\pi)/(4) to
(\pi i)/(4)

Required

Integrate by first method

Let:


f(z) = \sec^2z and
F(z) = \tan z


\int\limits_c \sec^2 z dz from
(\pi)/(4) to
(\pi i)/(4) implies that:


\int\limits_c \sec^2 z dz = F((\pi)/(4)i) - F((\pi)/(4))

Recall that:


F(z) = \tan z

So:


F((\pi)/(4)i) = \tan((\pi)/(4)i)


F((\pi)/(4)) = \tan((\pi)/(4))

So, we have:


\int\limits_c \sec^2 z dz = F((\pi)/(4)i) - F((\pi)/(4))


\int\limits_c \sec^2 z dz = \tan((\pi)/(4)i) -\tan((\pi)/(4))

In trigonometry:


\tan((\pi)/(4)) = 1

and


\tan((\pi)/(4)i) = i\tanh((\pi)/(4))

So:


\int\limits_c \sec^2 z dz = i\tanh((\pi)/(4)) -1

User Toni Rikkola
by
4.8k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.