Can someone help me with this please

asked Apr 3, 2022 214k views

3 votes

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6 votes

Answer:

It's a

Explanation:

$(1)/(4) {x}^(2) - 1$

${( (1)/(2) x)}^(2) - {1}^(2)$

Mghicks answered Apr 5, 2022

5.7k points

4 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

This is because the difference of two squares follows the general equation of (x-a)^2 - a^2 - c

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