132,502 views
36 votes
36 votes
Why does SEC 0= -√2/2 is impossible and explain?

User Nolabel
by
3.4k points

2 Answers

22 votes
22 votes

Answer:

sec 0 = 1 see image.

Explanation:

Secant is the reciprocal trig function of cosine. On the unit circle (and on your calculator) cos 0 = 1 . So,

1/ cos0 is 1/1 is just 1.

See image.

Why does SEC 0= -√2/2 is impossible and explain?-example-1
User Pdesantis
by
3.0k points
7 votes
7 votes

Answer:

sec(-π +ln(1+√2)i) = -√2/2 . . . . if complex θ is allowed

Explanation:

For real values of θ, each of the trig functions has a specified range. The value -√2/2 is outside the range of the secant function, so sec(θ) = -√2/2 cannot exist for real values of θ.

In geometrical terms, the secant of an angle is the ratio of the hypotenuse to the near side of that angle in a right triangle. The hypotenuse can never be shorter than the side length, so |sec(θ)| = √2/2 is geometrical nonsense.

__

Additional comment

The ranges of all trig functions include all complex numbers when complex values of their arguments are allowed. For the case at hand, the value of θ for sec(θ) = -√2/2 is ...

θ ≈ -π +ln(1+√2)i or π +ln(√2 -1)i

This value can be found by using Euler's formula to solve the given equation.

Some calculators are equipped to provide the numerical value of the complex arcsecant of -√2/2.

User Giles Smith
by
3.5k points