228k views
5 votes
If ⃗ , and ⃗ are all in the same direction, can we say, ⃗ . ( . ⃗ ) = (⃗ . ). ⃗ ? Explain

your answer.

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer:

yes because it doesn't matter the order

User Gaurav
by
4.0k points