157k views
2 votes
What would be the correct response to this question? I am confused?

What would be the correct response to this question? I am confused?-example-1

1 Answer

2 votes

Solution

The rule for negative exponent a^-n = 1/a^n, why it does not apply when a = 0.

when a = 0


a^(-n)=(1)/(a^n)
\begin{gathered} a^(-n)=0^(-n)=0 \\ (1)/(a^n)=(1)/(0^n)=\infty,\text{but you cannot divide by zero} \end{gathered}

Hence the correct answer is Option A

User Leeroy
by
3.5k points