Answer
The new pressure = 9 atm.
Since the new pressure of 6840 mmHg (9 atm) exceeds 6080 mmHg, then the can will likely explode.
Step-by-step explanation
Given:
Initial pressure P₁ = 4 atm
Initial temperature, T₁ = 27 °C = (27 + 273.15 K) = 300.15 K
Final temperature, T₂ = 402 °C = (402 + 273.15 K) = 675.15
What to find:
The new pressure at a temperature of 402 °C.
Step-by-step solution:
According to Amonton's law: The pressure of a given amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature, provided that the volume does not change, i.e:
![(P_1)/(T_1)=(P_2)/(T_2)](https://img.qammunity.org/2023/formulas/chemistry/college/bl01ihqrk2iafik946ln2z6l66er35i8vj.png)
Putting P₁ = 4 atm, T₁ = 300.15 K, and T₂ = 675.15 K into the formula, we have:
![\begin{gathered} (4atm)/(300.15K)=(P_2)/(675.15K) \\ \\ Cross\text{ }multiply \\ \\ P_2*300.15K=4atm*675.15K \\ \\ Divide\text{ }both\text{ }sides\text{ }by\text{ }300.15K \\ \\ (P_2)/(300.15K)=(4atm*675.15K)/(300.15K) \\ \\ P_2=9\text{ }atm \end{gathered}](https://img.qammunity.org/2023/formulas/chemistry/college/gu86i2ug95tw7m3ckt42esnw2j856ckpz4.png)
The new pressure at a temperature of 402 °C = 9 atm.
According to the information in the question that the can explode if the internal pressure exerts 6080 mmHg, then we need to convert 9 atm to mmHg to know how likely is it to explode.
Conversion factor:
1 atm = 760 mmHg
So 9 atm = (9 atm/1 atm) x 760 mmHg = 6840 mmHg
Since 6840 mmHg pressure exceeds 6080 mmHg, then the can will likely explode.