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But these months we had to come here

User Dtrunk
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1 Answer

5 votes

The y - intercept of f(x) is at (0,2).

Let's solve for the y-intercept of g(x). SInce y - intercepts has x = 0, then we are going to substitute the x variable in g(x) with 0.


\begin{gathered} g(x)=x^2-2x-3 \\ g(x)=0^2-2(0)-3 \\ g(x)=-3 \end{gathered}

Therefore, the y-intercept of the g(x) function is at (0, -3).

Comparing the two y-intercepts (0, 2) and (0, -3), it is obvious that 2 is greater than -3. Thus, function f(x) has the greater y-intercept.

The answer would be Option 3.

User Amir Zadeh
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