Hello there. To solve this question, we'll have to remember some properties about trigonometric functions.
Given the expression:

We want to show that it is equal to

First, multiply the fraction by the following expression

We choose this fraction for two reasons:
It does not change the expression, since we're multiplying it by 1
It will help in rewrite the expression in the denominator, using a product rule.
Okay. Multiplying the fractions, we get

In the denominator, apply the rule of the product between the sum and difference:

Hence we have

Using the fundamental trigonometric identity

We write

Therefore we get

Simplify the fraction by a factor of cos(x)

Break up the fraction as a sum of fractions

Knowing that

We get

Therefore we say that the equality holds and the statement is true.