Hello there. To solve this question, we'll have to remember some properties about trigonometric functions.
Given the expression:
We want to show that it is equal to
First, multiply the fraction by the following expression
We choose this fraction for two reasons:
It does not change the expression, since we're multiplying it by 1
It will help in rewrite the expression in the denominator, using a product rule.
Okay. Multiplying the fractions, we get
In the denominator, apply the rule of the product between the sum and difference:
Hence we have
Using the fundamental trigonometric identity
We write
Therefore we get
Simplify the fraction by a factor of cos(x)
Break up the fraction as a sum of fractions
Knowing that
We get
Therefore we say that the equality holds and the statement is true.