69.0k views
0 votes
COS X/1+sinx = sec x-tan x

User Dade
by
7.1k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Hello there. To solve this question, we'll have to remember some properties about trigonometric functions.

Given the expression:


(\cos(x))/(1+\sin(x))

We want to show that it is equal to


\sec(x)-\tan(x)

First, multiply the fraction by the following expression


\begin{gathered} (1-\sin(x))/(1-\sin(x)) \\ \end{gathered}

We choose this fraction for two reasons:

It does not change the expression, since we're multiplying it by 1

It will help in rewrite the expression in the denominator, using a product rule.

Okay. Multiplying the fractions, we get


(\cos(x))/(1+\sin(x))\cdot(1-\sin(x))/(1-\sin(x))=(\cos(x)\cdot(1-\sin(x)))/((1+\sin(x))\cdot(1-\sin(x)))

In the denominator, apply the rule of the product between the sum and difference:


(a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2

Hence we have


(\cos(x)\cdot(1-\sin(x)))/(1-\sin^2(x))

Using the fundamental trigonometric identity


\cos^2(x)+\sin^2(x)=1

We write


\cos^2(x)=1-\sin^2(x)

Therefore we get


(\cos(x)\cdot(1-\sin(x)))/(\cos^2(x))

Simplify the fraction by a factor of cos(x)


(1-\sin(x))/(\cos(x))

Break up the fraction as a sum of fractions


(1)/(\cos(x))-(\sin(x))/(\cos(x))

Knowing that


\begin{gathered} \tan(x)=(\sin(x))/(\cos(x))\text{ and} \\ \\ \sec(x)=(1)/(\cos(x)) \end{gathered}

We get


\sec(x)-\tan(x)

Therefore we say that the equality holds and the statement is true.

User DAddYE
by
5.9k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.