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If f: R → R is defined by f(x) = x and g: R→R is defined by g(x) = x then (fog) (x) is


User Igor Camilo
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1 Answer

21 votes
21 votes

As
R → R is defined by
f(x) = x and
g(x) = x,

So,
f and
ghave the same domain. Therefore,


(fog)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x) = x

User Jayowend
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3.3k points