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The y-intercept of f(x) has the same value as the

The function f1(x) has a range including all values
greater than or equal to 0; therefore, the
does also.

The y-intercept of f(x) has the same value as the The function f1(x) has a range including-example-1
User Titanous
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Answer:

The y-intercept of f(x) has the same value as the -x-intercept of f inverse-

The function f^1 (x) has a range including all values greater than or equal to 0; therefore, the -domain of f- does also

Explanation:

User Davis Molinari
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