Answer:
a. Yes it's correct, reasons;
I) let x=1, f(1)=2^1=2, g(x)=1^2=1 this proves that when a higher number is used the value of f(x) will be higher than g(x).
ii) As x approaches zero f(x) approaches 1, but g(x) approaches 0. Which will make the rate at which the graph of f(x) increase be faster than g(x)
b. f(x) has an infinite degree but g(x) has a finite degree of 2.