Answer: c^(-2) which is the same as 1/(c^2)
Step-by-step explanation
The rule to use is x^y*x^z = x^(y+z)
We add exponents when multiplying expressions like this. The bases must be the same.
The exponents add to: 6 + (-6) + (-2) = -2
Therefore we end up with the answer c^(-2)
It is equivalent to 1/(c^2) because of the rule x^(-y) = 1/( x^y )