Question

If the government seizes property under eminent domain and gives the property for personal use, how has the Fifth Amendment been violated?

1. It does not violate the Fifth Amendment according to the “Takings Clause.”

2. It does not violate the Fifth Amendment because it is due process.

3. It violates the Fifth Amendment because the federal government does not have eminent domain power; that is solely the power of the states.

4. It violates the Fifth Amendment because the property, in this case, must be used for a public good or service.

Answer 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The power of the government through the use of eminent domain, to take private property and convert it into public use, is referred to as a taking. The Fifth Amendment provides that the government may only exercise this power if they provide just compensation to the property owners.

Hopefully this helps! :)