9.2k views
5 votes
Why did the governor of Malta seize Barabas estate?

User Remirror
by
7.8k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Final answer:

The detailed response explains that there's a mix-up in the materials given and the actual literary context of Marlowe's play, wherein the governor of Malta seizes Barabas' estate to pay a tribute to the Turks.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question "Why did the governor of Malta seize Barabas estate?" is actually derived from the plot of "The Jew of Malta," a play written by Christopher Marlowe. However, the materials provided do not pertain to this specific question, as they discuss various historical events and rebellions unrelated to the fictional governor of Malta or Barabas' estate. In the context of Marlowe's play, the governor of Malta seizes Barabas' estate to help pay a tribute demanded by the Turks, reflecting the tensions between Christians and Jews during the time period depicted in the play. Since the question is based on a literary work and the information provided does not match the question, it appears there has been a mix-up.

User Zoltan Magyar
by
8.1k points

Related questions

asked Sep 28, 2024 100k views
Paul Wasilewski asked Sep 28, 2024
by Paul Wasilewski
7.3k points
1 answer
1 vote
100k views
asked Nov 5, 2024 11.2k views
Kooki asked Nov 5, 2024
by Kooki
8.6k points
2 answers
1 vote
11.2k views