Question

I don’t understand pls help

Answer 1

Answer: 0

Reason:

`\displaystyle \int_(a)^(a)f(\text{x})\text{dx} = 0` for any real number 'a'

Visually we're looking under the curve between x = a and x = a, but this region's width is 0 units wide. This is basically a straight vertical line and not some region under a curve. So this is why the area is 0.

It could be possible that your teacher made a typo somewhere when crafting this problem.