Question

A 52-year-old man with a primary infection of genital herpes was prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) orally for 10 days. The patient returns to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Which finding indicates that treatment is effective?

1) Negative bacterial culture
2) Absence of genital lesions
3) Reduction of genital warts
4) No drainage from chancre sore

Answer 1

The presence of 'absence of genital lesions' indicates that the acyclovir treatment for genital herpes in a 52-year-old man has been effective, as it suggests the virus is in its latent phase.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question seeks to know which finding indicates that the treatment with acyclovir (Zovirax) for a primary infection of genital herpes has been effective.

The correct answer is '2) Absence of genital lesions'. Antiviral medications like acyclovir work to keep the herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) in its dormant phase and reduce the symptoms. While there is no cure for HSV-2, effective treatment would typically result in the reduction or absence of genital lesions. This is a sign that the virus is in its latent phase and the patient is not undergoing an active outbreak. Other options listed, such as negative bacterial culture, reduction of genital warts, or no drainage from chancre sore, are not related to herpes simplex virus treatment.