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17 votes
17 votes
What if the base of an exponent is a 1?.

User VJune
by
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2 Answers

12 votes
12 votes
the answer is always 1 in that case.
example: 1^6 would equal 1
User Mohammad Fajar
by
2.9k points
24 votes
24 votes

Answer:

The answer will always be 1

Explanation:

The exponent is how many times the base number is multiplied by itself

For example 2^4 means 2 multiplied by itself 4 times or 2*2*2*2

But it doesn't matter how many times you multiply 1 by itself and it will always be 1

For example 1^5 is 1*1*1*1*1 which is equal to 1. you can even have 1^16 which is 1*1*1*1*1*1*1*1*1*1*1*1*1*1*1*1 but the answer is still 1 so the answer will always be 1

User Jvnill
by
3.3k points
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